Understanding and valuing FRAs

@fabian tricky question. I simply detest the FRA notation…

2×3 FRA

2 – the FRA will mature/expire in 2 months
3 – the underlying loan will mature in 3 months
1 – the difference is the duration of the loan. Or in other words the 30-day LIBOR rate 60 days from now.

So following your example:

40 days after the initiation of the contract means:

the 2 (which is 60 days in terms) only has 20 days (60-20) lefts before the contract (FRA) should expire.

How did you get, “Shouldn’t it be 20 days after the FRA initiates, and 50 days after the FRA expires”?

Think of it this way, if you have a long position in an FRA agreement means you have the obligation to borrow money in 60 days. But you aren’t borrowing at the initiation of the FRA contract, you are going to borrow for 30 days in 60 days time.

The value of the contract is derived from the difference in the floating and fixed rate (or the price of the FRA agreement).

At the date of expiration of the FRA agreement if the floating rate is above the rate specified in the forward agreement you basically have the right to borrow at below market rates. (Which makes you happy and you receive payment from the short position and treat yourself to a nice Armani suit with a French cut dress shirt).

I hope I’m right….

@diya’s spot on.

@fabian, I don’t get how you arrived at “Shouldn’t it be 20 days after the FRA initiates, and 50 days after the FRA expires” too?

@fabian I think you’re thinking that the agreement starts at 20 days, and ends at 50 days. Instead, the FRA has already started 40 days ago, will expire in 20 days (and the loan starts), and the loan with will end in 50 days. That’s why there is always 3 relevant dates in an FRA agreement. @diya is spot on here.