CFA CFA Level 2 Derivatives EOC Answer Explanation Makes No Sense

Derivatives EOC Answer Explanation Makes No Sense

  • This topic has 4 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated Sep-17 by ykilstein.
  • Author
    Posts
    • Up
      0

      EOC Futures Mkts

      “The Following…to Q’s 9-14”

      Uda…is CFO at Axia…HQ in Germany, reports in EUR.

      [skip]

      Exhibit 2
      UK Rate = 4.17%*
      EUR Rate = 3.28%*
      Spot Exchange Rate (GBP per EUR) = .6892
      *244-day int. rates, discrete and annualized

      #12:

      Based on Ex. 2, the arbitrage-free 244-day forward exchange rate (GBP per EUR) is closest to:
      A. 0.6932
      B. 0.6851
      C. 0.7083

      The answer is A and gives F=S*[(1+RFdomestic)^T/(1+RFforeign)^T]. They put .6892[1.0417^(244/365)/1.0328^(244/365). That makes no sense bc 4.17% is the foreign rate and 3.28% is domestic as they say GBP per EUR, they’re based in EUR, report in EUR…

      To quote Walter in The Big Lebowski, “Has the whole world gone CRAZY?”

      I saw this same Q on Analyst Forum but they didn’t do a good job of explaining it.

      Thanks!

    • Up
      5

      It’s up to you which ever method that works for you, personally I don’t really use the fixed f/d method as long as your answers are in the same order (numerator and denominator) before multiply the answers in #1 and #2 you will be fine.

      The only exception is when there’s bid and ask, you can’t just switch it around with 1/x. For example when you switch from buy EUR to sell EUR, you would have to use the relevant rate and not just with the 1/x.

    • Up
      4

      I believe what you’re saying is ignore notation (f/d) and “go down” the direction they want you to. (GBP/EUR) This relates to Econ exchange rates and I see from here that could use some work!

      Thx @vincentt

    • Up
      2

      Don’t get distracted by domestic or foreign as it doesn’t really matter in this case.

      1. Look at the answer, what rate is it presented in? GBP/EUR which is the same numerator/denominator as the question (e.g. GBP per EUR = .6892 )

      2. Now convert both the exchange rate to a 244 days forward:

      GBP
      1.0417 ^ (244/365) = 1.027687
      EUR
      1.0328 ^ (244/365) = 1.021809

      In the same order as the rate give GBP / EUR = 1.027687 / 1.021809 = 1.005752

      3. Now multiply the spot rate with the answer in 2 (1.005752), which will give you 0.693165

      Unless the answer is asking for EUR / GBP you can easily get that with the [1/x ] button on your BA II calculator.

    • Up
      0

      Even tho the #’s are right, the book’s formula still makes no sense.

      I hear what you’re saying. Better to think abt it as Price/Base. If you’re in Australia and you’re dealing GBP for EUR’s, who gives a rat’s behind what country everyone’s in.

      With all that bid-ask inverse stuff, my econ is glaringly lacking.

Viewing 4 reply threads
  • You must be logged in to reply to this topic.