TVM

I tried to solving it by the BA calculator through cf button, but it doesn’t show the right answer; I got a total of A. $30,432. can someone explain?

Because at the END of year 1, 2 semi annual periods have actually passed, so there are 3 years left to end of year 4, i.e. from end of year 1 to end of year 4 is 3 years, i.e. 6 semi annual periods.

thanks for the explanation

^{spin the wheel}

Finally I found a proper explanation! thanks a lot

 
<p style=”text-align: right;”>gamblorium</p>

suitable explanation. Thanks a lot!

Minesweeper

B is correct. To solve for the future value of unequal cash flows, compute the future value of each payment as of Year 4 at the semiannual rate of 2%, and then sum the individual future values, as follows: