- This topic has 9 replies, 7 voices, and was last updated Sep-171:00 pm by
.
-
Posts
-
-
Up4
The correct answer is A. As income increases, the consumption of an inferior good decreases.
Inferior goods, by definition, are purchased less as income increases. All you need to know is that beans are an inferior good and that Nelly’s income increases.
The situation illustrates why a good might be inferior — why might you buy less of it as you get more money? In this case, Nelly needs to eat something. She would rather have beef, but it is expensive. If Nelly has very little income, she may have to spend all her money on beans. As her income increases, she uses the excess money to switch her purchases over from beans to beef.
-
Up4
Wow – i got pwned, i thought the question was asking about the better good. So I was right conceptually but was tricked by the question. By the looks of it, so did @CFAcharterwannabe‌. How did we get tricked in exactly the same manner?!?!
-
Up4
I would be delighted, if I get question like this in the actual Exam.
-
Up3
C, it will increase. Better income means increase in the usage of better goods. Right?
-
-
Up2
A nice and easy basic economics question here Level 1 candidates! What is your answer (without referring to your books of course)?
-
Up2
Increases…? This question did a good job of reminding myself of how much I’ve forgotten about L1.
-
Up2
Eeesh, spoilers. I read the @fabian’s and @CFAcharterwannabe‌’s comments before the question, haha.
-
Up1
@PassedTense‌, thanks for these questions! Just a suggestion: you should have them as polls so that we can select our own answers 🙂
-
- You must be logged in to reply to this topic.