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It depends on the freedom of capital movement and the definition of ‘with time’, i.e. what period we’re talking about (short / long term). We’ve discussed this question before with @vincentt at this useful thread about the Mundell-Fleming model.
In the international currency markets, I’d think that it assumes free, fluid capital movement between countries, therefore in the long run:
high interest rates –> inflow of capital –> currency appreciation (your second statement) –> fall in exports –> currency depreciation (your first statement)
The net effect depends on capital mobility.
I’m not sure how it relates to your comment on Fischer equation. Can you clarify?