CFA CFA Level 2 A doubt in economics (FX markets) – L2

A doubt in economics (FX markets) – L2

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    • Avatar of vincenttvincentt
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        • CFA Level 3
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        First point is correct as the currency with higher level of I/R should depreciate.

        Second point is correct as well.
        Just an example:
        Restrictive Monetary Policy -> reduces money supply -> I/R would increase -> inflow of capital to the country -> which leads to the currency appreciation.

        Hope that helps.

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        Thanks a lot, @vincentt and @sophie..


        @sophie
        – International fischer condition was a discussion in the context of international parity conditions.. The first statement is a result of Covered and uncovered interest rate parity conditions..
        But I think the difference in the term explains the difference in results 🙂
        Thanks a lot..

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        No problem @Knath87! Glad we could help 🙂

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        It depends on the freedom of capital movement and the definition of ‘with time’, i.e. what period we’re talking about (short / long term). We’ve discussed this question before with @vincentt at this useful thread about the Mundell-Fleming model.

        In the international currency markets, I’d think that it assumes free, fluid capital movement between countries, therefore in the long run:

        high interest rates –> inflow of capital –> currency appreciation (your second statement) –> fall in exports –> currency depreciation (your first statement)

        The net effect depends on capital mobility.

        I’m not sure how it relates to your comment on Fischer equation. Can you clarify?

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