- This topic has 8 replies, 7 voices, and was last updated Oct-1812:49 pm by
setty.
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Up::3
I think the calculation should be as follows (highlighted in bold are the differences to @dr_pain28 ‘s answer):
CF0=-$550,000
C01=$65,000
F01= 5 (We will receive the identical $65,000 for 5 straight years)
C02= $50,000
F02= 3 (We will receive the $50,000 cash flow for 3 years)
C03= $350,000
F03= 1The question mentioned that it will sell the property for $300k after the 9th year which is when it receives the last payment of $50k hence it should be $350k instead of $300k.
So the NPV should be -$53,765 and IRR should be 7.015%.
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Up::3
I use the HP 12c, but there is a Charterholder who uses a TI in all his problem sets; search “Ronald Moy CFA” on youtube.
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Up::1
@CFA_redemption_12713 Do you by chance have a correct answer to the question so we can check our work?
I got IRR=6.66% NPV= -$65,169.64
I got these numbers by first using the Cash Flow register (CF) on your calculator immediately above the I/Y button.
CF0=-$550,000
C01=$65,000
F01= 5 (We will receive the identical $65,000 for 5 straight years)
C02= $50,000
F02= 4 (We will receive the $50,000 cash flow for 4 years)
C03= $300,000
F03= 1Hit the “IRR” button (above payment) and hit ‘CPT’ to get the IRR of 6.66%.
Hit ‘NPV’ (above present value), put in 9% for the Interest. Down scroll to read NPV, then hit compute to get -$65,169.64
I hope that i did this correctly and got the answers that the book gave. If I didn’t, post the correct answers and I’ll try to help figure out where I went wrong. I hope that this helps.
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Up::1
@Dr_Pain28 thank you!!!! I’ve been trying to figure out why this hasn’t worked for me for days and ur post just explained that I need to hit IRR first BEFORE CPT. Brilliant, I can sleep well tonight 🙂
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