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Hi,
This is a typical CFA trick question.
As you point out for a capital lease the negative cash flow from the lease is split in two (cash flow from operating and cash flow from financing activities), while for an operational lease the negative cash flow from the lease is all classified as cash flow from operating activities.
Because the cash flows are negative the capital lease will result in lower cash flows from financing activities, and the flipside of this argument is the answer that operating leases result in higher cash flows from financing activities (compared to a capital lease).
I hope this makes sense?
All the best,