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Up16
Question #3 of 3
Question ID: 1211840
Cathy Moran, CFA, is estimating a value for an infrequently traded bond with six years to maturity, an annual coupon of 7%, and a single-B credit rating. Moran obtains yields-to-maturity for more liquid bonds with the same credit rating:
5% coupon, eight years to maturity, yielding 7.20%.6.5% coupon, five years to maturity, yielding 6.40%.
The infrequently traded bond is most likely trading at:
A) par value.
B) a discount to par value.
C) a premium to par value.
Explanation
Using linear interpolation, the yield on a bond with six years to maturity should be 6.40% + (1 / 3)(7.20% – 6.40%) = 6.67%. A bond with a 7% coupon and a yield of 6.67% is at a premium to par value.
(LOS 44.e)
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Up9
Hi @pcunniff , for the comparable bonds, one is 5 years to maturity, and the other is 8 years to maturity. So that’s 3 years difference.
Given that the illiquid bond we are trying to compare is 6 years to maturity (1 year extra from 5 years to maturity), that’s where you get 1/3.
Does this make sense?
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