- This topic has 14 replies, 4 voices, and was last updated Sep-175:11 am by fabian.
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Up::7
Hi all, I need a little help as I’m stuck with the following formula:
Re – pretax earnings of the asset if held by the giver
Tie – income tax for the asset if held by the giver
Rg – pretax earnings of the asset if held by receiver
Te – estate tax rate
Toi – current income tax benefit associated with a charitable transferFirst part of the numerator:
(1 + Rg) ^ N
– Since receiving the asset, it will grow at a tax free return of Rg. Not an issue.Toi [ 1 + Re (1 – Tie) ] ^ N (1 – Te)
– This is what confuses me, since this is comparing giving the asset to a charity now vs transferring to a beneficiary N years later, shouldn’t the formula just add back the Toi as part of the growth to the (1 + Rg) ^ N?In the CFAI text (Vol 2 p300 or the screen shot above), it stated that “The tax advantages of charitable giving allow the donor to either increase the charitable benefit associated with a given transfer of excess capital from the estate, or …”, so wouldn’t it be right to say that the additional funds from the tax deduction or savings that the charity could claim from the government (referring to Gift Aid Scheme in the UK) would also be part of the initial donated funds. Hence, should grow (FV) at the same rate as the (1 + Rg) ^ N instead of increasing it at the giver’s after-tax return rate [ 1 + Re (1 – Tie) ] ^ N.
Also, my second issue is with the tax deduction amount (from donating to the charity) which was increased at the giver’s after-tax return rate and was taxed by the estate tax rate at N (meaning a bequest instead of a charity). I thought this whole formula is to find out the relative value of giving the asset as a charitable gift against a bequest?
Thanks guys.
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Up::4
hey @vincentt‌ thanks for sharing the answer, seems to make sense.
I haven’t really planned to practice past year essay questions, as syllabus may have varied. I have about 3-4 sets of practice papers for L3 (including CFA mock), once that’s done, I may consider doing last year’s, but that’s about it. Going further back may be less relevant. My thoughts anyway…
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Up::2
@sophie haha.
Well, there isn’t really an answer to this as the CFA’s method is very likely to be a US system so perhaps different to the gift aid scheme in the UK.
Basically, I think CFA assumes that by donating to the charity now you are able to get some tax deduction and they assume the tax deduction is “credited” back into your account as an asset (which you are better off than not donating to a charity). Then assume you’ll gain after tax return and then get taxed (estate/gift tax) when the donor pass it on as a gift or bequest.
My concept was that since you are donating amount X to a charity, the charity is able to get an additional amount x * Toi from the tax office (gift aid scheme). Hence, the formula in the second part of the numerator will be different.
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