- This topic has 4 replies, 2 voices, and was last updated Sep-1710:57 am by
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Up5
It’s up to you which ever method that works for you, personally I don’t really use the fixed f/d method as long as your answers are in the same order (numerator and denominator) before multiply the answers in #1 and #2 you will be fine.
The only exception is when there’s bid and ask, you can’t just switch it around with 1/x. For example when you switch from buy EUR to sell EUR, you would have to use the relevant rate and not just with the 1/x.
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Up2
Don’t get distracted by domestic or foreign as it doesn’t really matter in this case.
1. Look at the answer, what rate is it presented in? GBP/EUR which is the same numerator/denominator as the question (e.g. GBP per EUR = .6892 )
2. Now convert both the exchange rate to a 244 days forward:
GBP
1.0417 ^ (244/365) = 1.027687
EUR
1.0328 ^ (244/365) = 1.021809In the same order as the rate give GBP / EUR = 1.027687 / 1.021809 = 1.005752
3. Now multiply the spot rate with the answer in 2 (1.005752), which will give you 0.693165
Unless the answer is asking for EUR / GBP you can easily get that with the [1/x ] button on your BA II calculator.
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Up0
Even tho the #’s are right, the book’s formula still makes no sense.
I hear what you’re saying. Better to think abt it as Price/Base. If you’re in Australia and you’re dealing GBP for EUR’s, who gives a rat’s behind what country everyone’s in.
With all that bid-ask inverse stuff, my econ is glaringly lacking.
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