CFA CFA Level 1 int expense

int expense

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    • Avatar of pcunniffpcunniff
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        • CFA Level 1
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        Hey! Where are they getting $10,366 from? Would appreciate any help here!

        Assume a city issues a $5 million semiannual-pay bond to build a new arena. The bond has a coupon rate of 8% and will mature in 10 years. When the bond is issued its yield to maturity is 9%. Interest expense in the second semiannual period is closest to:

        A)

        $80,000.

        B)

        $210,830.

        C)

        $106,550.

        Step 1: Compute the proceeds raised (i.e., the present value of the bond): Since the yield is above the coupon rate the bond will be issued at a discount.

        FV = $5,000,000; N = (10 × 2) = 20; PMT = (0.08 / 2)(5 million) = $200,000; I/Y = (9 / 2) = 4.5; CPT → PV = -$4,674,802

        Step 2: Compute the interest expense at the end of the first period.

        = (0.045)(4,674,802) = $210,366

        Step 3: Compute the interest expense at the end of the second period.

        = (new balance sheet liability)(current interest rate)

        = $4,674,802 + $10,366 = $4,685,168 new balance sheet liability

        (0.045)(4,685,168) = $210,833

        (Study Session 8, Module 28.2, LOS 28.b)

      • Avatar of rahul12rahul12
        Participant
          • CFA Level 3
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          2
          Accepted answer
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          $10,366 is the difference between the interest expense at the end of year 1 ($210,366) and the coupon payment ($200,000).

          you need to adjust the balance sheet’s bond liability end of 1st period to calculate 2nd period’s interest expense.

          the ending bond liability = beginning bond liability ($4,674,802) + change in bond liability ($210,366 – 200,000) = $4,685,168

          therefore, 2nd period’s interest expense is 4.5% x 4,685,168 = $210,833

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