While studying FV formula, I found myself very confused. for example I have Notional 1,000,000, interest 12% yearly (no comp), duration 1 month. Future Value (of interest) calculation is = Spot x (1+r)^t so here, FV comes as : 1000000*(1.12)^(1/12)=1,009,488.79 therefore interest for one month is 1009488.79-1000000 = 9,488.79 Shouldnt interest be 10,000 for one month? Basically, 12% yearly for 1000,000 is 120,000. So one month interest will be 10,000 (120,000/12 periods) only? Why do we have 9,488.79 vs 10,000 (manual)? Please help me.

A CFA General Discussion About Question On Calculating FV Using Book Method

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