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Can someone explain this? I thought the holding period return formula was End Value/Beg Value – 1?
An investor purchased 725 shares of stock at $40 per share and posted initial margin of 60%. He subsequently sold the shares at $50 per share. Based only on this information, the investor’s holding period return is closest to:
A)40%.
B)20%.
C)25%.
Explanation
(50 – 40) / (40 × 0.6) = 41.67%.
(Study Session 12, Module 36.2, LOS 36.f)