- This topic has 13 replies, 6 voices, and was last updated Apr-173:42 am by hairyfairy.
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Up::4
I came across this question in the Qbank.
Can anyone tell me what is the correct answer and why?
P.S. Still hate economics :s
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Up::1
First, a price ceiling can be any price, whether above or below the equilibrium price.
For a price ceiling to be in effect (enforced), it has to be below the equilibrium market price. It may help to think of say sugar pricing, for example. Say 1kg sugar is $5, but the government regulates it and place a price ceiling of $2. Hence the market price is $2. Imagine if the price ceiling is $7, then since the equilibrium price is below that anyway, the price ceiling is not in effect.
Rattling on in excess of your question, you can see the impact of a price ceiling in effect using this chart. Due to the lower price, there would be excess demand (shown by difference between demand and supply curve at the lower price ceiling), but producers can only supply much less at that price (because it’s not profitable or possible to do so). Due to this intervention in a free market, there is a loss to society in terms of economic inefficiency and unmet demand.
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Up::0
@sidmenon
doesnt the Q Bank give you a short explanation after you submit your answer? as in, won’t it explain why the correct answer is indeed correct?
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